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  • Why ipsa and not ipsae in Psalms 42:3? - Latin Language Stack Exchange
    Psalms 42:3 in the Vulgate has: Emitte lucem tuam et veritatem tuam Ipsa me deduxerunt Why is it ipsa and not ipsae?
  • Why is ipse not changing case in presence of possessive adjective?
    I don't know the wording of the rule you say is given by Henle Grammar 8 11, but Andrews and Stoddard's grammar (1878) gives a rule for the case of ipse that does not require it to be genitive in this kind of context: When ipse is joined with a possessive pronoun used reflexively, it usually takes the case of the subject; as, Meam ipse lēgem nēgligo; not meam ipsius, according to § 211, R 3
  • When do we use supine and ut ne clause to express purpose?
    Spectatum veniunt, veniunt, spectentur ut ipsae The come to see, they come to be seen Aside from all that – though technically still a use with a verb of motion – the supine is used with iri (which is the passive infinitive of ire) to form the future passive infinitive, e g : Puto inimicos expugnatum iri I believe the enemies will be
  • Citation for Epictetus quote what makes men mad
    I'm reading through a textbook on counseling, and they cite Epictetus as saying, quot;It's not the events of life that make men mad, but rather the view we take of them quot; It's a common quote
  • Quomodo in Latinum vertitur alternative facts?
    Two common ways of saying 'fact' are res ipsa and res vera, and Lewis Short tells me that the opposite of res vera is res ficta So, for the plural 'alternative facts,' I suggest: res aliae atque ipsae ('things other than different from facts themselves'), which allows for some nice elisions – it somehow seems appropriate that things would be hidden or obscured in the term res aliae quam
  • Latin transcription - interpretation of one word
    I have transcribed the attached Latin text (part of a manuscript from ca 1850 by the Norwegian professor M J Monrad) as follows: Ninime certe, si eo tantum consilis vite mortalibus data esset, ut
  • On the interpretation of ipse in anticausative constructions
    No, don't worry!): Valvae se ipsae aperuerunt (Cic Div 1, 74) ‘The doors opened by themselves’ Would it be possible in Latin to say the following example without se? Ipse can of course be used in other non-change and non-reflexive contexts (Ipse dixit) but I'm not sure if the following example would be well-formed in Latin:
  • Can -que be attached to a word ending in -que?
    I searched through plausible forms (particularly adverbial forms of adjectives ending in -quus) and only found one example: Aequeque in rebus minoribus socium fallere turpissimum est aequeque turpe atque illud de quo ante dixi (Cic S Rosc 40) simili quae praedita constant natura atque ipsae res sunt aequeque laborant et pereunt (Lucr 1 847) Otherwise, I have not found one example, even in
  • Ligature in Latin handwriting - Latin Language Stack Exchange
    As you see in your other text examples - e g quæ - the 'æ" ligature is used quite freely -deformed like the 'et' = in most handwritten texts - because as the standard finite vowel experienced latin readers do not even look at it
  • Newest late-latin Questions - Latin Language Stack Exchange
    Q A for linguists, teachers, and students wanting to discuss the finer points of the Latin language





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